I trust the fever is better.
To continue the quote you snipped:
"Such a declaration is typically made when a person has been missing for an extended period of time and in the absence of any evidence that the person is still alive -"
PONG
your PING
So what exactly? How does your nitpicking over a legal technicality mean that either Eleanor or myself (not in a court of law, but on a chat forum) are wrong to ask you if you (that's you personally and not an applicant in an actual court of law) would seek to have your own child declared dead despite the absence of any evidence that she actually is?
And if you really want to get nit-picky and have your pong pinged back atcha, there's no such thing as 'applying for death in absentia'.
And you still haven't explained how having your child legally declared dead is a preferable thing to not having her declared dead. I assume it would be to enable you to achieve closure of some sort, am I wrong?