Author Topic: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?  (Read 91004 times)

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Redblossom

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Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #135 on: November 23, 2013, 05:02:20 PM »
It's a combination of two classic propaganda techniques Red

1 )  Pseudo - intellectual Bull

The use of lots of unusual words in complicated, incomprehensible sentences that sound very educated

2 )  Confuse with Technicalese

Confusing the issue with lots of technical-sounding garbage that means little or nothing


This all reminds of a former  member who has flounced more times than  Ginger Rogers ball-gown  8(0(*

Loved Fred and Ginger!!!


There may be trouble ahead....lets face the music and dance lol





Offline Rogerandout

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Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #136 on: November 23, 2013, 05:03:38 PM »
It's a combination of two classic propaganda techniques Red

1 )  Pseudo - intellectual Bull

The use of lots of unusual words in complicated, incomprehensible sentences that sound very educated

2 )  Confuse with Technicalese

Confusing the issue with lots of technical-sounding garbage that means little or nothing


This all reminds of a former  member who has flounced more times than  Ginger Rogers ball-gown  8(0(*

There are facts and there are opinions.

It maybe that people have the opinion that Paracetamol is a sedative, but it is a fact that it is not. The British National Formulary is divided into sections. One section is for analgesics, another is for sedatives. look it up yourself. Paracetamol is an analgesic (and anti-pyretic) and is not listed as a sedative.

That is because it is not a sedative.
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Redblossom

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Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #137 on: November 23, 2013, 05:05:48 PM »
It is simple semantics:

Is paracetamol a sedative?

No, it is not!

no it isnt but my ref to semantics had nothing to do with that! But your dancing around what pain relief means....and what it doesnt


Offline Wonderfulspam

Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #138 on: November 23, 2013, 05:09:13 PM »
It's a combination of two classic propaganda techniques Red

1 )  Pseudo - intellectual Bull

The use of lots of unusual words in complicated, incomprehensible sentences that sound very educated

2 )  Confuse with Technicalese

Confusing the issue with lots of technical-sounding garbage that means little or nothing


This all reminds of a former  member who has flounced more times than  Ginger Rogers ball-gown  8(0(*

If Spencer starts talking to himself about dogs again he will give the game away.
Christian Brueckner Fan Club

Offline Rogerandout

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Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #139 on: November 23, 2013, 05:13:29 PM »
This forum is really quite abusive compared with others on the board. Is this normal? That factual debate is dismissed by insolence and schoolboy humour.

Can anyone produce an academic reference to Paracetamol having a proven sedative effect?

If not, the question is answered.
I

Offline pinkblossoms

Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #140 on: November 23, 2013, 05:17:00 PM »
Are you calling me a lier? DONT.

The correct spelling is liar-not lier  8)--))

Offline Rogerandout

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Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #141 on: November 23, 2013, 05:18:33 PM »
no it isnt but my ref to semantics had nothing to do with that! But your dancing around what pain relief means....and what it doesnt

Pain Relief Medication does not necessarily cause sedation. (Paracetamol does not)

Pain Relief Medication may cause sedation. (Opioids do)

Pain Relief may allow the heightened reaction to stressors to decrease the amount of sedatives needed, but that does not mean that analgesics are necessarily deatives.

Paracetamol is a non-sedative analgesic.

Unlike other medications which are sedative analgesics (opioids and others) which are sedative in their effect.

Such medications are require to have a warning attached.

Paracetamol does not.

No clinically trained person would refer to Paracetamol as a sedative.

I

Offline Rogerandout

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Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #142 on: November 23, 2013, 05:21:06 PM »
So are the manufacturers of Calpol lying when they state - Pain & Fever relief ?
Surely if you remove the cause of pain pain will therefore be dissipated ? And logically if you provide a substance that removes the 'cause' of pain then that substance has assuaged the original pain !

You can argue the toss 'til the cows come home BUT Calpol (and by association, paracetamol) does actually assuage pain.

Pain relief is analgesia
Fever relief is anti-pyretic effect.

Sedation is changing the level of consciousness. Paracetamol does not do that and so is not a sedative drug.

As noted above, all sedative drugs require a warning about driving or operating machinery. Paracetamol does not.

Paracetamol is not a sedative drug.
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Redblossom

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Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #143 on: November 23, 2013, 05:23:22 PM »
Pain Relief Medication does not necessarily cause sedation. (Paracetamol does not)

Pain Relief Medication may cause sedation. (Opioids do)

Pain Relief may allow the heightened reaction to stressors to decrease the amount of sedatives needed, but that does not mean that analgesics are necessarily deatives.

Paracetamol is a non-sedative analgesic.

Unlike other medications which are sedative analgesics (opioids and others) which are sedative in their effect.

Such medications are require to have a warning attached.

Paracetamol does not.

No clinically trained person would refer to Paracetamol as a sedative.

What a waste of time typing that i already said my post was not about sedation properties of paracetamol lol but your dancing around what pain relief means, never mind leave you to it

Offline Rogerandout

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Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #144 on: November 23, 2013, 05:25:45 PM »
Do analgesics assuage pain ? Yes or no !
No.


Some do- like opioids. They act within the Central Nervous System and reduce pain signal transmission by binding to pain receptors and blocking prostaglandins from activating them.

Some lie Paracetamol do not. They remove the cause of pain like acidifying an alkalising solution on the skin. Their mode of action for analgesia is not involved with the CNS as with opioids, but in the blood stream where they stop irritant biochemicals (prostaglandins) from activating pain receptors by neutralising them.
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Offline Rogerandout

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Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #145 on: November 23, 2013, 05:26:55 PM »
What a waste of time typing that i already said my post was not about sedation properties of paracetamol lol but your dancing around what pain relief means, never mind leave you to it

I suggest you read up on clinical treatment of pain then.
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ferryman

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Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #146 on: November 23, 2013, 05:30:59 PM »
It's a combination of two classic propaganda techniques Red

1 )  Pseudo - intellectual Bull

The use of lots of unusual words in complicated, incomprehensible sentences that sound very educated

2 )  Confuse with Technicalese

Confusing the issue with lots of technical-sounding garbage that means little or nothing


This all reminds of a former  member who has flounced more times than  Ginger Rogers ball-gown  8(0(*

 Pseudo - intellectual Bull

That's certainly what those perpetuating the myth that calpol is a sedative are guilty of.

And burying the myth matters in respect of Madeleine, because the McCanns had calpol with them on that holiday, and firmly squashing the canard that the McCanns 'sedated' Madeleine is important.


Offline Rogerandout

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Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #147 on: November 23, 2013, 05:32:47 PM »
If you do not want to believe me, try:

Terence Stephenson, professor of child health at Nottingham University:

"Paracetamol doesn't have any sedative properties whatsoever and neither does Nurofen," he says. "It's a widespread misconception that Calpol helps children to sleep. Doctors used to prescribe antihistamines to help children sleep, but not any longer."

...

"Doctors agree that as painkillers these medications are effective and, most importantly, safe. "There was a study in the US of over 80,000 children given ibuprofen and paracetamol, and the number of those who developed side effects that could be attributed to the medicine was absolutely tiny," says Prof Stephenson."


http://www.telegraph.co.uk/health/children_shealth/3314633/Are-we-using-too-much-Calpol.html
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Redblossom

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Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #148 on: November 23, 2013, 05:32:58 PM »
I suggest you read up on clinical treatment of pain then.

Why would I waste my time...Im not really that interested if at all, youre the one posting inanities like calpol does not help pain, is not pain relief....so why is it on the market as pain relief/analgesic? As I said never mind....

Offline Rogerandout

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Re: Was Calpol in 2007 really a sedative?
« Reply #149 on: November 23, 2013, 05:36:15 PM »
So you are stating on a public forum that paracetamol does NOT assuage pain ! 
That any product that contains paracetamol is falsely advertised as having pain assuaging properties, and that you will state your supposed professional reputation on that statement ?

The word 'assuaging' is never used in clinical reports.

The technical term is analgesics or pain-relievers.

You are just trying too hard to use a misconception that you have found in a dictionary.

Paracetamol is not and never has been defined or used as a sedative by the medical profession.

Uneducated people may have used language that contradicts this, but that is because they are uneducated. Dictionaries are descriptive, not proscriptive- they record how people use the language, not how language should be used.

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