Apologies if you've covered this before!
I'm genuinely perplexed as to why, if Bamber did it, Sheila...
- Had no self defence wounds
- Had no narcotics in her blood that would render her unconscious
- Was on the floor of her parents bedroom
I don't see how he achieved this: both parents clearly reacted and put up a fight, why not SC? She has to have died after her father otherwise he'd have stepped over her to get out of bed, so it's unlikely JB made her go in with them at gunpoint, shot his mother and father whilst they resisted but she remain inert and didn't respond.
I'd have thought the most likely modus operandi would be to pick individuals off, not herd them all together. If the plan was to creep in at the dead of night, surely the general idea would be to shoot them as they individually slept, in which case why isn't peaceful, unmarked Sheila in her own bed?
If Sheila had to step over her dying mother and was told to lie down it would be obvious her number was up and she would have fought to save her children. Was Sheila sleeping in bed with her mother and Nevill somewhere else?
The blood patterns on her clothes look to me as though both shots were delivered where she lay, so she can't have been shot somewhere else and moved there: why was she lying on the floor without a fight? For there to be no defence wounds she has to have been either cooperating or unconscious. There was nothing in her blood to suggest she had been drugged, so if she was unconscious why was she on the floor? People don't faint when dramas unfold: their bodies kick out adrenaline for fight or flight to prevent this.
I can't see any convincing reason why she would lie down and be shot, why she wasn't in her own bed, nor can I think of any convincing reason why a murderer would shoot her twice: all he had to do was wait or lightly pinch her nostrils, if he'd callously planned all this right down to positioning his mother's bicycle he'd have known it was one-shot only for the 'suicide' plan.
What's the accepted view?
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