If sedation was the motive which the McCanns wished to conceal, why did Kate McCann bring it up in the first place? How does that make any sense? Do you agree with the statement “there is no evidence that the McCanns sedated their children?” yes or no?
According to the PJ files Kate McCann brought the subject up with Ricardo Paiva three months after the disappearance.
According to Kate McCann she raised the subject with the responding officers on the night of the disappearance, but there's no evidence of that. She said nothing in her interview on 4th May.
According to the LP liaison officers the parents asked them if the PJ had found any evidence suggesting sedation had been used.
So there's no evidence that the McCanns sedated their children, but there is evidence that they were interested in the possibility very early on, but none that they raised the possibility with the PJ. Why not? Why wait for three months?