During their trial these people were entitled to the presumption of innocence. They were convicted and were then guilty. If that verdict was overturned then they were not proved guilty. Surely they then are entitled to the presumption of innocence again? Refusing compensation suggests they are still being presumed to be guilty.
This is a good explanation and confirms exactly as I thought
The presumption of innocence, an ancient tenet of Criminal Law, is actually a misnomer. According to the U.S. Supreme Court, the presumption of the innocence of a criminal defendant is best described as an assumption of innocence that is indulged in the absence of contrary evidence (Taylor v. Kentucky, 436 U.S. 478, 98 S. Ct. 1930, 56 L. Ed. 2d 468 [1978]). It is not considered evidence of the defendant's innocence, and it does not require that a mandatory inference favorable to the defendant be drawn from any facts in evidence.